CompTIA Server+ Practice Test

For exam SK0-005: each answer links to the public text that settles it, from Linux manual pages to NIST publications.

Which RAID level stripes data across the drives with zero redundancy?

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Unofficial practice questions, not affiliated with CompTIA. Bank checked October 8, 2026.

All 100 questions

Server hardware installation and management 18

  • A disk shelf is cabled straight to one server, with no network in between. What is this kind of storage called? NIST SP 800-209, section 1
  • A drive in a Linux software RAID 5 array fails, and the array has a spare drive. What does the md driver do? Linux man-pages, md(4), RECOVERY
  • A firewall rule must let servers reach an iSCSI storage array. Which TCP port does IANA register as the iSCSI target port? IANA Service Name and Transport Protocol Port Number Registry, iscsi-target
  • A firmware update fixes a flaw in a server. What does NIST SP 800-53 control SI-2 call for before the update is installed? NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, control SI-2
  • A RAID 1 array is built from a 4 TB drive and a 6 TB drive. How much space does the array use on each drive? Linux man-pages, md(4), RAID1
  • A RAID 6 array is built from six 4 TB drives. How much data can it store? Linux man-pages, md(4), RAID6
  • How does RAID 5 differ from RAID 4? Linux man-pages, md(4), RAID5
Show all 100 questions (93 more)

Server hardware installation and management, continued

  • In a hot aisle/cold aisle layout, which way do the fronts of the servers in two facing rows point? ENERGY STAR, Move to a Hot Aisle/Cold Aisle Layout, A Time-tested Technique
  • In RAID 4 and RAID 5, what lets the array keep working after one drive fails? Linux man-pages, md(4), RAID4
  • On which network does NIST SP 800-147B say a server's Service Processor should sit? NIST SP 800-147B, section 2.2
  • Under NIST SP 800-53 control PE-15, what protects a server room from damage by water leakage? NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, control PE-15
  • Under NIST SP 800-53, what should support the fire detection and suppression systems of a server room? NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, control PE-13
  • What is a server's Service Processor, also called a Baseboard Management Controller? NIST SP 800-147B, section 2.2
  • What kind of access does a storage area network (SAN) give to storage? NIST SP 800-209, section 1
  • Which kind of shared storage gives clients file-level access over the network, with protocols such as NFS or SMB? NIST SP 800-209, section 1
  • Which protocol lets a SAN run over an ordinary, possibly shared LAN or WAN in place of a dedicated Fibre Channel network? NIST SP 800-209, section 1
  • Which RAID level combines mirroring with striping and is sometimes written RAID 1+0? Linux man-pages, md(4), RAID10
  • Which RAID level stripes data across the drives with zero redundancy? Linux man-pages, md(4), RAID0

Server administration 30

  • A DHCP scope hands out the right addresses, but clients cannot resolve names. Which DHCP option carries the list of DNS servers? RFC 2132, section 3.8
  • A hypervisor runs directly on the hardware, with no host operating system under it. Which form of full virtualization is this? NIST SP 800-125, section 2.2
  • A laptop moves to a new subnet and asks the DHCP server there to confirm its old address. Which message does the server send? RFC 2131, section 3.1, table 2
  • A Linux bond runs in active-backup mode with two interfaces. How many of them carry traffic at one time? Linux kernel documentation, Ethernet Bonding Driver HOWTO, mode active-backup
  • A logical volume is full, and its volume group still has free space. Which command enlarges the logical volume? Linux man-pages, lvm(8), COMMANDS
  • A PowerShell script must run a command against each item of an array. Which language construct iterates over the values of a collection? Microsoft Learn, about_Foreach, about_Foreach
  • A reverse lookup of the address 192.0.2.10 returns a host name. Which DNS record type answered the query? RFC 1035, section 3.2.2
  • A script's first line is #!/bin/bash. What does that line do? GNU Bash Reference Manual, section 3.8, Shell Scripts
  • During a file server migration, which robocopy option mirrors a directory tree, deleting destination files that no longer exist in the source? Microsoft Learn, robocopy, copy options
  • How does the name of a PowerShell variable begin? Microsoft Learn, about_Variables, about_Variables
  • How many partition table entries does an MBR disk support before an extended partition is needed? Microsoft Learn, Windows and GPT FAQ, What is wrong with MBR partitioning
  • How many partitions does the Windows implementation of GPT allow on one disk? Microsoft Learn, Windows and GPT FAQ, How many partitions a GPT disk can have
  • In a Bash script, which loop runs its commands once for each word in a list? GNU Bash Reference Manual, section 3.2.5.1, Looping Constructs
  • In a line of /etc/fstab, what does the second field give? Linux man-pages, fstab(5), second field (fs_file)
  • In Linux LVM, what is a volume group? Linux man-pages, lvm(8), DESCRIPTION
  • Mail for a domain is being delivered to the wrong server. Which DNS record type names the domain's mail exchange? RFC 1035, section 3.2.2
  • On a 4-CPU Linux server, what does a load average of 1 mean? Linux man-pages, uptime(1), DESCRIPTION
  • On a system that boots with UEFI, which partition style must the Windows boot disk use? Microsoft Learn, Windows and GPT FAQ, Mixing and matching GPT and MBR disks
  • Under NIST SP 800-53 control CM-8, what must an inventory of system components do? NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, control CM-8
  • What file system do modern Windows operating systems use by default? Microsoft Learn, NTFS overview, NTFS overview
  • What is the default PowerShell execution policy on Windows Server? Microsoft Learn, about_Execution_Policies, PowerShell execution policies
  • What lets NTFS restore file system consistency at the next startup after a system failure? Microsoft Learn, NTFS overview, Increased reliability
  • Which DNS record type gives an alias its canonical name? RFC 1035, section 3.2.2
  • Which DNS record type marks where a zone of authority starts? RFC 1035, section 3.2.2
  • Which Hyper-V checkpoint type uses the Volume Shadow Copy Service to make a data-consistent virtual machine backup, with no snapshot of its memory state? Microsoft Learn, Hyper-V checkpoints, checkpoint types
  • Which Linux bonding mode is IEEE 802.3ad dynamic link aggregation? Linux kernel documentation, Ethernet Bonding Driver HOWTO, mode 802.3ad
  • Which Linux bonding mode transmits packets in sequence, from the first available interface through the last? Linux kernel documentation, Ethernet Bonding Driver HOWTO, mode balance-rr
  • Which Microsoft file system was developed to maximize data availability and to give data integrity with resiliency to corruption? Microsoft Learn, Resilient File System (ReFS) overview, ReFS overview
  • Which Windows Server install option leaves out the standard graphical user interface and is managed from the command line or remotely? Microsoft Learn, Server Core vs Server with Desktop Experience, install options
  • With two-way mirroring in Storage Spaces, how much physical capacity is needed to store 1 TB of data? Microsoft Learn, Storage Spaces fault tolerance, Two-way mirror

Security and disaster recovery 24

  • A full disk encryption product asks for a password before the operating system is decrypted and booted. What is this called? NIST SP 800-111, section 3.1.1
  • A server with full disk encryption is powered on and its operating system is loaded. What protection does FDE give its data at that moment? NIST SP 800-111, section 3.2
  • A server with particularly strong security controls, configured to offer the least functionality possible, is called what? NIST SP 800-123, section 4.2
  • A technician unlocks a hardware token with a fingerprint. In NIST's terms, which two authentication factors are in play? NIST SP 800-63B-4, section 2.2.1
  • After which sanitization method can the media no longer be used to store data? NIST SP 800-88 Rev. 2, section 3.1.3
  • Backups are locked after they are created, so that ransomware can neither alter nor delete them. What is this property called? NIST SP 800-209, section 2.11.5
  • How must the recovery time objective normally compare with the maximum tolerable downtime? NIST SP 800-34 Rev. 1, section 3.2.1
  • Rewriting storage media with new values through the standard read and write commands is typical of which sanitization method? NIST SP 800-88 Rev. 2, section 3.1.1
  • Under NIST SP 800-53 control CP-9, the frequency of backups must be consistent with which objectives? NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, control CP-9
  • Under NIST SP 800-53 control MP-6, when must system media be sanitized? NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, control MP-6
  • Under NIST SP 800-53 control PE-3, what is verified before a person is granted access to the facility where the system resides? NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, control PE-3
  • Under NIST SP 800-53 control PE-10, from what must the emergency power shutoff capability be protected? NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, control PE-10
  • Under NIST SP 800-53 control PE-12, what must the automatic emergency lighting cover when the power fails? NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, control PE-12
  • What kind of host does NIST SP 800-123 say a server should ideally be on? NIST SP 800-123, section 4.2.1
  • Where does NIST SP 800-34 Rev. 1 say encryption of stored system data is most effective? NIST SP 800-34 Rev. 1, section 5.1.2
  • Where should the alternate storage site for backups be, relative to the primary storage site? NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, control CP-6
  • Which alternate site is a fully redundant facility with automated real-time mirroring of information? NIST SP 800-34 Rev. 1, section 3.4.3
  • Which backup type captures all files on the disk or in the selected folder, so one file is simple to locate, but can take a long time to run? NIST SP 800-34 Rev. 1, section 5.1.2
  • Which contingency planning figure is the total time the system owner is willing to accept for a business process outage? NIST SP 800-34 Rev. 1, section 3.2.1
  • Which kind of replication copies data from the production site to the disaster recovery site in real time? NIST SP 800-209, section 2.11.5
  • Which kind of storage encryption encrypts all the data on the drive used to boot a computer, including the operating system? NIST SP 800-111, section 3.1.1
  • Which of these does NIST SP 800-53 list among the contents of visitor access records for a facility? NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, control PE-8
  • Why does NIST SP 800-123 prefer not installing an unnecessary service to uninstalling it later? NIST SP 800-123, section 4.2.1
  • Why should unneeded default accounts be removed or disabled on a newly installed server? NIST SP 800-123, section 4.2.2

Troubleshooting 28

  • A degraded Linux software RAID 5 array is restarted after an unclean shutdown. What does the md driver do? Linux man-pages, md(4), UNCLEAN SHUTDOWN
  • A domain controller VM misbehaves after a standard checkpoint is applied. What does Microsoft's documentation warn about standard checkpoints? Microsoft Learn, Hyper-V checkpoints, checkpoint types
  • A large file copy over an unreliable WAN link keeps failing midway. Which robocopy parameter lets an interrupted copy pick up where it left off? Microsoft Learn, robocopy, copy options
  • A Linux bond does not fail over when a cable is pulled. Which bonding parameter, or its ARP-based alternative, must be set for link failures to be detected? Linux kernel documentation, Ethernet Bonding Driver HOWTO, bonding driver options
  • A newly installed drive does not show up as a mount. Which command lists information about all the block devices that the system sees? Linux man-pages, lsblk(8), DESCRIPTION
  • A power supply fails in a production server. Which practice does NIST SP 800-53 control MA-6 call for? NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, control MA-6
  • A RAID 6 array has lost two drives and still serves data. What does the md documentation say about performance in that state? Linux man-pages, md(4), RAID6
  • A restore fails because a backup tape cannot be read. Which practice of NIST SP 800-53 enhancement CP-9(1) is meant to catch this beforehand? NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, control CP-9(1)
  • A restore from last night's incremental backup fails because one earlier copy is missing. Which copy do incremental backups depend on? NIST SP 800-209, recommendation IS-SS-R5
  • A script must look up a single host name with nslookup. Which mode does Microsoft say to use? Microsoft Learn, nslookup, nslookup
  • A server's DNS record was corrected, but a Windows client still resolves the old address. Which command discards the client's cached entries? Microsoft Learn, ipconfig, ipconfig parameters
  • A storage array fails completely. Why may its snapshots be useless for recovery? NIST SP 800-209, section 2.11.5
  • A tracert shows a row of asterisks for one hop, yet later hops answer. What does Microsoft's documentation give as the cause? Microsoft Learn, tracert, tracert
  • A Windows server's name failed to register in DNS. Which command starts a manual dynamic registration without a reboot? Microsoft Learn, ipconfig, ipconfig parameters
  • After a failover, recovery has restored the business functions. Which later activity returns the systems to fully operational states? NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, control CP-10
  • After an unclean shutdown, a Linux data volume will not mount cleanly. Which tool checks and optionally repairs the filesystem? Linux man-pages, fsck(8), DESCRIPTION
  • By default, what is the maximum number of hops that tracert will trace? Microsoft Learn, tracert, tracert
  • chkdsk is run with no parameters on a volume that has errors. What happens? Microsoft Learn, chkdsk, chkdsk
  • The Linux md driver detects a write error on one drive of a RAID 1 array. What does it do first? Linux man-pages, md(4), RECOVERY
  • Two servers on one subnet cannot reach each other, and neither has an ARP entry for the other. What does ARP resolve? RFC 826, title and abstract
  • Under NIST SP 800-53 control CP-4, why is a contingency plan tested? NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, control CP-4
  • What does NTFS do when it detects a bad sector? Microsoft Learn, NTFS overview, Increased reliability
  • Which chkdsk parameter finds bad sectors and salvages readable data? Microsoft Learn, chkdsk, chkdsk parameters
  • Which command makes a Windows host send a DHCPRELEASE message and discard its IP address configuration? Microsoft Learn, ipconfig, ipconfig parameters
  • Which journalctl option shows only the messages of one systemd unit, such as a service that keeps failing? Linux man-pages, journalctl(1), OPTIONS
  • Which of these does NIST SP 800-34 Rev. 1 list as an area that a contingency plan test should address? NIST SP 800-34 Rev. 1, section 3.5.1
  • Which systemctl command shows a unit's runtime status followed by its most recent log data from the journal? Linux man-pages, systemctl(1), status
  • Windows system files appear corrupted after a failed patch. Which command scans all protected system files and repairs those with problems? Microsoft Learn, sfc, sfc parameters

How this list was compiled: Own questions, written to the four domains and weights of CompTIA's Server+ exam SK0-005 (version 5) as CompTIA publishes them at https://www.comptia.org/en-us/certifications/server/ (read 2026-10-08). Facts were read on 2026-10-08 in public texts: the Linux man-pages (md, lvm, fstab, systemctl, journalctl, lsblk, fsck, uptime), the Linux kernel's bonding documentation, the GNU Bash Reference Manual, Microsoft Learn's Windows Server and PowerShell documentation, IETF RFCs 826, 1035, 2131 and 2132, the IANA port registry, NIST SP 800-34 Rev. 1, SP 800-53 Rev. 5, SP 800-63B-4, SP 800-88 Rev. 2, SP 800-111, SP 800-123, SP 800-125, SP 800-147B and SP 800-209, and ENERGY STAR's data center pages. Each question names the text and section it was written from and links to it. Licence: Own work. Every question, wrong choice and explanation was written for this site from the public texts named in each question. Nothing is copied or reworded from a CompTIA exam, a released or sample question, or another practice product.

How it works

An unofficial CompTIA Server+ practice test: 100 questions of our own on storage, Windows and Linux administration, recovery and fault finding, in the four SK0-005 domains. The page is not affiliated with CompTIA, and no real exam question is used.

Read the full guide

What Server+ covers

CompTIA's Server+ page, read on October 8, 2026, lists exam SK0-005 (version 5) with four domains: server hardware installation and management 18%, server administration 30%, security and disaster recovery 24%, and troubleshooting 28%. The bank holds 18, 30, 24 and 28 questions on them.

What is missing

The exam's performance-based tasks are not here; every question is multiple choice. Rack units, power connectors, cable types and CompTIA's troubleshooting steps are not asked, because no public text read for this bank states them.

  • RAID 5 spreads parity over every drive, and a spare lets the md driver start rebuilding at once (Linux md manual).
  • chkdsk with no switches only reports; /f fixes errors and /r also finds bad sectors (Microsoft Learn).
  • A recovery time objective must normally be shorter than the maximum tolerable downtime (NIST SP 800-34 Rev. 1).

Questions and answers

Is this a Server+ SK0-005 practice test?

Yes. SK0-005 (version 5), launched May 18, 2021, is the only Server+ exam on CompTIA's page today, and the questions are sorted by its four domains.

How many questions are on the CompTIA Server+ exam?

A maximum of 90, multiple choice and performance-based, in 90 minutes, by CompTIA's page. Exam mode here asks 90 multiple-choice questions against a 90-minute clock and shows the percent right by domain.

What is the passing score for Server+?

CompTIA passes Server+ at 750 on a scale of 100 to 900. The scale is not a percent, so no result here says whether you would pass.

Do you need A+ before Server+?

CompTIA's page recommends A+ certification or equivalent knowledge, plus two years of hands-on work in a server environment. It lists that as recommended experience, not as a requirement.