• 100 questions

CompTIA Project+ Practice Test

For exam PK0-005: every answer names the GAO guide or other public text it was checked against.

Testing cannot start until coding finishes. Which logic relationship links the two activities?

Pick an answer, then press Check answer. Then you see Correct or Not quite, with the reason. Keys: A to D pick, Enter checks.

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Unofficial practice questions, not affiliated with CompTIA. Bank checked October 8, 2026.

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All 100 questions

Project management concepts 33

  • A change request has been logged and analyzed. Which body approves, defers or rejects it? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Change Control Board
  • A project is behind. The manager adds people to time-dependent activities so the work finishes sooner. What is this technique, and what does GAO warn about it? GAO Schedule Assessment Guide (GAO-16-89G), best practice 10, table 6
  • A sponsor keeps adding features while the budget, schedule and staffing stay the same. What is this called? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Scope Creep
  • A team finishes 100 story points in an iteration, and a manager wants to rank teams by that number. What does the GAO Agile guide say about velocity? GAO Agile Assessment Guide (GAO-24-105506), appendix II, Velocity
  • A threat has occurred and no response had been planned for it. What is the interim response called that keeps the project moving until a permanent fix is ready? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Workaround
  • An activity has 5 days of total float and 0 days of free float. What does the zero tell you? GAO Schedule Assessment Guide (GAO-16-89G), glossary, Free float
Show all 100 questions (94 more)

Project management concepts, continued

  • Before a procurement, the project wants to find out which bidders are interested. Which document does it release? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Request for Information
  • California's project management framework lists six change control processes in order. Which one comes straight after Change Review? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Change Control Process
  • Concrete must cure for 3 days before framing starts, and nobody works on the curing. How is the wait modeled in the schedule? GAO Schedule Assessment Guide (GAO-16-89G), glossary, Lag
  • The extent of the work cannot be estimated when the contract is placed. The buyer pays fixed hourly rates for labor plus the actual cost of materials. Which contract type is this? Federal Acquisition Regulation, section 16.601
  • In GAO's cost guide, what is a risk called when its effect on the program would be favorable? GAO Cost Estimating and Assessment Guide (GAO-20-195G), glossary, Risk
  • In MoSCoW prioritization, what does the W stand for? GAO Agile Assessment Guide (GAO-24-105506), appendix II, MoSCoW
  • In Waterfall development, how are requirements, design, development and testing performed? GAO Agile Assessment Guide (GAO-24-105506), chapter 1
  • One analyst is booked on two overlapping activities. The scheduler moves one start date to fit her availability. What is this called? GAO Schedule Assessment Guide (GAO-16-89G), glossary, Resource leveling
  • The team decides to acknowledge a risk and take no action unless it occurs. Which risk response is this? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Risk Acceptance
  • Testing cannot start until coding finishes. Which logic relationship links the two activities? GAO Schedule Assessment Guide (GAO-16-89G), glossary, Finish-to-start
  • Two activities planned one after the other are rescheduled to overlap, so finish-to-start logic becomes start-to-start. Which technique is this? GAO Schedule Assessment Guide (GAO-16-89G), best practice 10, table 6
  • Under which contract type does the contractor carry maximum risk and full responsibility for all costs? Federal Acquisition Regulation, section 16.202-1
  • The user guide cannot be finished until the software build is finished. Which logic relationship links the two activities? GAO Schedule Assessment Guide (GAO-16-89G), glossary, Finish-to-finish
  • What happens when a time box runs out before the work is finished? GAO Agile Assessment Guide (GAO-24-105506), appendix II, Time box
  • What is a change request? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Change Request
  • What is a minimum viable product? GAO Agile Assessment Guide (GAO-24-105506), appendix II, Minimum viable product
  • What is the critical path of a schedule? GAO Schedule Assessment Guide (GAO-16-89G), glossary, Critical path
  • What separates an issue from a risk? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Issue
  • When does an Agile team hold a retrospective? GAO Agile Assessment Guide (GAO-24-105506), appendix II, Retrospective
  • Which contract type pays the contractor's allowable incurred costs, up to a ceiling that may not be exceeded without approval? Federal Acquisition Regulation, section 16.301-1
  • Which document describes the specific tasks, activities and deliverables that a contractor will provide? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Statement of Work
  • Which document sets target performance measures for a contractor and the penalties for missing them? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Service Level Agreement
  • Which feature sets Kanban apart from most other Agile methods? GAO Agile Assessment Guide (GAO-24-105506), appendix II, Kanban
  • Which plan says who provides each type of project communication, when, and in what format? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Communications Management Plan
  • Which risk response takes organized steps to reduce the probability of a risk or its impact on the project? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Mitigation
  • Which solicitation gives the requirements, the contract terms and the criteria by which the responses will be evaluated? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Request for Proposal
  • Why does a milestone consume no resources in a schedule? GAO Schedule Assessment Guide (GAO-16-89G), glossary, Milestone

Project life cycle phases 30

  • A planner bases the cost of a new server room on the actual cost of a similar one built last year, adjusted for the differences. Which estimating method is this? GAO Cost Estimating and Assessment Guide (GAO-20-195G), glossary, Analogy
  • A project has earned value of $80,000 and actual cost of $100,000, so its cost performance index is 0.8. What does that show? GAO Cost Estimating and Assessment Guide (GAO-20-195G), table 23, EVM performance indexes
  • A proposed project's discounted benefits are $3 million and its discounted costs are $2 million. What is its benefit-cost ratio? OMB Circular A-94 (2023), appendix A, Benefit-Cost Ratio
  • An estimate is built at the lowest level of the WBS, one element at a time, and the elements are added up. Which method is this? GAO Cost Estimating and Assessment Guide (GAO-20-195G), glossary, Engineering build-up
  • By which two measures does a stakeholder register classify each stakeholder? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Stakeholder Register
  • During planning, a factor is treated as true without proof. What is it called? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Assumption
  • Early in a project, the team compares the costs, benefits and risks of several potential solutions and of the status quo, then selects one. What is this process called? GAO Cost Estimating and Assessment Guide (GAO-20-195G), glossary, Analysis of alternatives
  • How is net present value calculated? GAO Cost Estimating and Assessment Guide (GAO-20-195G), glossary, Net present value
  • In a RACI matrix, what do the four letters stand for? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, RACI Matrix
  • In earned value management, what is the budgeted cost of work performed also known as? GAO Cost Estimating and Assessment Guide (GAO-20-195G), glossary, Budgeted cost of work performed
  • In the discovery phase, which document is a structured proposal that justifies the project for decision makers? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Business Case
  • Near-term work is planned in detail, while later work stays in planning packages until it comes closer. What is this approach called? GAO Schedule Assessment Guide (GAO-16-89G), glossary, Rolling wave planning
  • Once a schedule baseline is approved, how can it be changed? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Schedule Baseline
  • What are lessons learned kept for? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Lessons Learned
  • What does a schedule performance index of 1.1 mean? GAO Cost Estimating and Assessment Guide (GAO-20-195G), glossary, Schedule performance index
  • What does a work breakdown structure show? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Work Breakdown Structure
  • What happens to the project's end product in the closing phase? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Closing Process Phase
  • What is another name for a RACI matrix? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, RACI Matrix
  • What is decided at a phase gate? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Phase Gate
  • What is the lowest level of a work breakdown structure called, where work is planned and progress is measured? GAO Schedule Assessment Guide (GAO-16-89G), glossary, Work package
  • When is a kickoff meeting usually held? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Kickoff Meeting
  • Which document describes how the project will be executed, monitored and controlled? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Project Management Plan
  • Which document gives the project manager authority to apply the organization's resources to project activities? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Project Charter
  • Which document holds the details of each WBS component: its deliverable, its activities and its schedule? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, WBS Dictionary
  • Which earned value figure is the latest revised estimate of what all authorized work will cost when it is finished? GAO Cost Estimating and Assessment Guide (GAO-20-195G), glossary, Estimate-at-complete
  • Which of these is a project closing activity in California's project management framework? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Project Completion
  • Which role has the authority to provide funding for the project and to cancel it if necessary? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Project Sponsor
  • Which three items make up the scope baseline? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Scope Baseline
  • Which three values does a three-point estimate typically use? GAO Cost Estimating and Assessment Guide (GAO-20-195G), chapter 12, cost risk analysis with three-point estimates
  • Who typically makes a formal go/no-go decision at a key project milestone? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Go/No-Go Decisions

Tools and documentation 19

  • A scatter plot shows that defects rise with overtime hours. What does that establish on its own? NIST/SEMATECH e-Handbook of Statistical Methods, section 1.3.3.26, Scatter Plot
  • A wall chart with cards in "to do", "in progress" and "done" columns tracks user stories through an iteration. What does the GAO Agile guide call it? GAO Agile Assessment Guide (GAO-24-105506), appendix II, Story board
  • How does a burn up chart differ from a burn down chart? GAO Agile Assessment Guide (GAO-24-105506), appendix II, Burn up chart
  • How is a backlog ordered? GAO Agile Assessment Guide (GAO-24-105506), appendix II, Backlog
  • In a schedule, what does the status date mark? GAO Schedule Assessment Guide (GAO-16-89G), glossary, Status date
  • On a burn down chart, what does the vertical axis show? GAO Agile Assessment Guide (GAO-24-105506), appendix II, Burn down chart
  • On a Kanban board, what may each column have? GAO Agile Assessment Guide (GAO-24-105506), appendix II, Kanban board
  • On a Pareto chart, how are the bars arranged? AHRQ Digital Healthcare Research, Workflow Assessment Toolkit, Pareto Chart
  • What does a story point measure? GAO Agile Assessment Guide (GAO-24-105506), appendix II, Story point
  • Where is project documentation stored so that staff can search it and work on documents together? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Project Library
  • Which chart is a horizontal bar chart of time relationships, with bars whose lengths match the time they represent? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Gantt Chart
  • Which chart is a vertical bar chart of resource consumption and availability by time period? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Resource Histogram
  • Which chart plots one variable against another to reveal whether the two are related? NIST/SEMATECH e-Handbook of Statistical Methods, section 1.3.3.26, Scatter Plot
  • Which chart splits the range of a data set into equal-sized bins and plots the count in each bin? NIST/SEMATECH e-Handbook of Statistical Methods, section 1.3.3.14, Histogram
  • Which decision model displays the expected consequences of every decision alternative, weighting the possible outcomes at each chance node? NASA Systems Engineering Handbook (NASA SP-2016-6105 Rev2), appendix B, Decision Tree
  • Which grid lets a team follow each product requirement from where it came from to the deliverables that meet it? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Requirements Traceability Matrix
  • Which project document tracks each known risk's probability, impact, triggers, mitigation plans and contingency plans? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Risk Register
  • Which schedule calculation finds late start dates by subtracting durations from late finish dates? GAO Schedule Assessment Guide (GAO-16-89G), glossary, Backward pass
  • Which schedule shows only key events at a highly summarized level and is used to monitor overall project performance? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Milestone Schedule

Basics of IT and governance 18

  • A cloud provider meters storage and bandwidth and reports the usage to the customer. Which essential characteristic is this? NIST SP 800-145, section 2, Essential Characteristics
  • A developer provisions server time in the cloud without any human interaction with the provider. Which essential characteristic is this? NIST SP 800-145, section 2, Essential Characteristics
  • A team picks a quick design that is expedient now but more complex and more costly in the long term. What obligation has it taken on? GAO Agile Assessment Guide (GAO-24-105506), appendix II, Technical debt
  • A web shop's cloud capacity scales outward during a sale and back inward afterward, automatically. Which essential characteristic of cloud computing is this? NIST SP 800-145, section 2, Essential Characteristics
  • After a patch, testers confirm that features which worked before still work. Which kind of testing is this? GAO Agile Assessment Guide (GAO-24-105506), appendix II, Regression testing
  • Developers frequently merge code changes into a central repository, where automated builds and tests run. What is this practice called? NIST SP 800-204C, section 3.3.1
  • In a CI/CD pipeline, what is a build? NIST SP 800-204C, section 3.3.1
  • In IT configuration management, what is a configuration control board? NIST SP 800-128, section 2.1.1
  • In NIST's description of a CI/CD pipeline, where are code changes deployed in the continuous delivery stage, after the build? NIST SP 800-204C, section 3.3.1
  • In which practice is the release process fully automated, so that changes reach production with little or no human intervention? GAO Agile Assessment Guide (GAO-24-105506), appendix II, Continuous deployment
  • Several hospitals with the same compliance requirements share a cloud that is provisioned for their exclusive use. Which deployment model is this? NIST SP 800-145, section 2, Deployment Models
  • Under DevSecOps, as the GAO Agile guide describes it, who is responsible for security in the development build? GAO Agile Assessment Guide (GAO-24-105506), appendix II, DevOps
  • What governs how long project documents are kept and what happens to them afterward? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, Records Retention
  • When does integration testing typically take place? GAO Agile Assessment Guide (GAO-24-105506), appendix II, Integration testing
  • Which cloud deployment model is provisioned for open use by the general public and exists on the premises of the cloud provider? NIST SP 800-145, section 2, Deployment Models
  • Which of these does NIST SP 800-122 give as information that can distinguish or trace an individual's identity? NIST SP 800-122, Executive Summary
  • Which test level checks the smallest testable increment of software? GAO Agile Assessment Guide (GAO-24-105506), appendix II, Unit testing
  • Who performs user acceptance testing? California Department of Technology, CA-PMF, glossary, User Acceptance Testing

How this list was compiled: Own questions, written to the four domains and weights of CompTIA's Project+ exam PK0-005 (version 5) as CompTIA publishes them at https://www.comptia.org/en-us/certifications/project/ (read 2026-10-08). Facts were read on 2026-10-08 in public texts: the GAO Schedule Assessment Guide (GAO-16-89G), the GAO Cost Estimating and Assessment Guide (GAO-20-195G), the GAO Agile Assessment Guide (GAO-24-105506), the California Department of Technology's Project Management Framework (CA-PMF), the Federal Acquisition Regulation part 16, OMB Circular A-94, the NIST/SEMATECH e-Handbook of Statistical Methods, AHRQ's workflow toolkit, the NASA Systems Engineering Handbook and NIST SP 800-145, 800-128, 800-204C and 800-122. Each question names the text and section it was written from and links to it. Licence: Own work. Every question, wrong choice and explanation was written for this site from the public texts named in each question. Nothing is copied or reworded from a CompTIA exam, a released or sample question, or another practice product.

How it works

An unofficial CompTIA Project+ practice test: 100 questions of our own on schedules, budgets, risk, change control and Agile, sorted by the four PK0-005 domains. This page is not affiliated with CompTIA, and nothing is taken from its exam.

Read the full guide

What Project+ covers

CompTIA's Project+ page, read on October 8, 2026, lists exam PK0-005 (version 5) with four domains: project management concepts 33%, project life cycle phases 30%, tools and documentation 19%, and basics of IT and governance 18%. The bank holds 33, 30, 19 and 18 questions on them.

What is missing

The real exam mixes multiple-choice questions with performance-based tasks; this page has multiple choice only. Fishbone diagrams, PERT charts, conflict handling and ESG factors are not asked, because none of the public texts read for the bank states them.

  • A cost performance index under 1.0 says the finished work cost more than planned; over 1.0, less (GAO cost guide, table 23).
  • Crashing adds people and money; fast tracking overlaps activities that were planned in sequence (GAO schedule guide, table 6).
  • An issue has happened or surely will; a risk only might (California's CA-PMF glossary).

Questions and answers

Is this a PK0-004 practice test?

It follows PK0-005 (version 5), the only Project+ exam on CompTIA's page today, launched November 8, 2022. That page offers no PK0-004 exam, so anyone booking now sits PK0-005 and should study its objectives.

How many questions are on the CompTIA Project+ exam?

A maximum of 90, multiple-choice and performance-based, in 90 minutes, by CompTIA's page. Exam mode here draws 90 multiple-choice questions on a 90-minute clock and gives your percent right in each domain.

What score do you need to pass Project+?

CompTIA sets the passing score at 710 on a scale of 100 to 900. That scale is not a percent, so a result on this page cannot tell you whether you would pass.

Is Agile on the Project+ exam?

Yes. CompTIA's PK0-005 summary names Agile against waterfall, sprint reviews, retrospectives and burndown charts. The Agile questions here are checked against the GAO Agile Assessment Guide.

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