Unofficial practice questions for the medical laboratory technician exam, in the seven content areas of the Board of Certification's guideline.
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Unofficial practice questions, not affiliated with the American Society for Clinical Pathology (ASCP) Board of Certification. Bank checked October 7, 2026.
The real exam, as the Board of Certification describes it
A complication of transfusion is confirmed to be fatal. Under 21 CFR 606.170(b), how soon is the written report due at the FDA center (CBER)?21 CFR 606.170, Adverse reaction file (FDA), paragraph (b). Outline: Blood Banking, Transfusion Practice: Adverse Effects of Transfusion.
A donor gives two units of Red Blood Cells in one apheresis collection. Under 21 CFR 630.15, how often at most may this donor give such a donation?21 CFR 630.15, Donor eligibility requirements specific to Whole Blood, Red Blood Cells and Plasma (FDA), paragraph (a)(1)(i). Outline: Blood Banking, Blood Products: Donors.
A patient was transfused six weeks ago and needs blood again. Under 21 CFR 606.151(b), how old may the sample for pretransfusion testing be?21 CFR 606.151, Compatibility testing (FDA), paragraph (b). Outline: Blood Banking, Serologic and Molecular Testing: Compatibility tests.
A red blood cell antibody screen is positive before a transfusion. What does MedlinePlus say usually follows?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Red Blood Cell Antibody Screen, What do the results mean? Outline: Blood Banking, Serologic and Molecular Testing: Antibody detection.
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Blood banking, continued
A unit of Red Blood Cells with 35 days of dating left is irradiated today. Under 21 CFR 610.53, when does it expire?21 CFR 610.53, Dating periods for Whole Blood and blood components (FDA), paragraph (b), table of dating periods. Outline: Blood Banking, Blood Products: Blood Components.
Besides HIV, hepatitis B and hepatitis C, which infections does 21 CFR 610.40(a)(2) name for the testing of each blood donation?21 CFR 610.40, Test requirements (FDA), paragraph (a). Outline: Blood Banking, Blood Products: Processing, Testing.
By the MedlinePlus list of what each ABO type can receive, which blood types can a type AB patient receive?MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia (National Library of Medicine), Blood typing, Normal Results. Outline: Blood Banking, Blood Group Systems: ABO.
How cold must Fresh Frozen Plasma be stored, and for how long may it be kept, under 21 CFR 610.53?21 CFR 610.53, Dating periods for Whole Blood and blood components (FDA), paragraph (b), table of dating periods. Outline: Blood Banking, Blood Products: Storage.
In ABO back typing, what is mixed with the patient's serum?MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia (National Library of Medicine), Blood typing, How the Test is Performed. Outline: Blood Banking, Serologic and Molecular Testing: Blood grouping tests.
In which pairing of mother and infant does Rh incompatibility develop?MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia (National Library of Medicine), Rh incompatibility, Causes. Outline: Blood Banking, Physiology and Pathophysiology: Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn.
Platelets are kept at room temperature. Which storage and dating do 21 CFR 610.53 and 640.25 give?21 CFR 610.53, Dating periods for Whole Blood and blood components (FDA), paragraph (b), and 21 CFR 640.25(a). Outline: Blood Banking, Blood Products: Storage.
Red Blood Cells in an additive solution are stored between 1 and 6 °C. Which dating period does the table in 21 CFR 610.53 give?21 CFR 610.53, Dating periods for Whole Blood and blood components (FDA), paragraph (b), table of dating periods. Outline: Blood Banking, Blood Products: Storage.
What minimum hemoglobin does 21 CFR 630.10 set as the standard for a female allogeneic blood donor?21 CFR 630.10, General donor eligibility requirements (FDA), paragraph (f)(3)(i). Outline: Blood Banking, Blood Products: Donors.
Which test detects antibodies that are already stuck to the surface of a patient's red blood cells?MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia (National Library of Medicine), Coombs test, Why the Test is Performed. Outline: Blood Banking, Serologic and Molecular Testing: Direct antiglobulin testing.
Urinalysis and other body fluids 6
A pleural fluid is classed as a transudate by Light's criteria. Which cause does MedlinePlus list for a transudate?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Pleural Fluid Analysis, What do the results mean? Outline: Urinalysis and Body Fluids, Body Fluids: Chemical; Disease States.
A urine specific gravity is lower than normal. Which of these does MedlinePlus list as a cause of a decreased result?MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia (National Library of Medicine), Urine specific gravity test, What Abnormal Results Mean. Outline: Urinalysis and Body Fluids, Urinalysis: Physical, Specific gravity/osmolality.
Large amounts of which urine crystals may follow repeated urinary tract infections?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Crystals in Urine, What do the results mean? Outline: Urinalysis and Body Fluids, Urinalysis: Microscopic, Crystals.
Which urinary casts are seen when lipids are in the urine, most often as a complication of nephrotic syndrome?MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia (National Library of Medicine), Urinary casts, What Abnormal Results Mean. Outline: Urinalysis and Body Fluids, Urinalysis: Microscopic, Casts.
White blood cell casts in a urine sediment are common with which conditions?MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia (National Library of Medicine), Urinary casts, What Abnormal Results Mean. Outline: Urinalysis and Body Fluids, Urinalysis: Microscopic, Casts.
Why can a urine nitrite test be negative in a patient who has a urinary tract infection?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Nitrites in Urine, What do the results mean? Outline: Urinalysis and Body Fluids, Urinalysis: Chemical, Reagent strip.
Chemistry 18
A ferritin result is lower than normal. Which condition does MedlinePlus name first?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Ferritin Blood Test, What do the results mean? Outline: Chemistry, Acid-Base, Blood Gases, and Electrolytes: Electrolytes, iron.
A hemoglobin A1C result is 6.1%. In the percentages MedlinePlus gives for diagnosis, where does it fall?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Hemoglobin A1C (HbA1c) Test, What do the results mean? Outline: Chemistry, General Chemistry: Carbohydrates, Glycated proteins.
A lipid report lists the LDL as "calculated". Which results is that estimate based on?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Cholesterol Levels, What do the results mean? Outline: Chemistry, General Chemistry: Lipids, Test procedures.
About how long after a heart attack begins do raised troponin levels usually show up in the blood?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Troponin Test, What do the results mean? Outline: Chemistry, Proteins and Enzymes: Cardiac markers.
Alkaline phosphatase is high and GGT is low or normal. Which source of the alkaline phosphatase does that pattern make more likely?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Gamma-glutamyl Transferase (GGT) Test, What do the results mean? Outline: Chemistry, Proteins and Enzymes: Enzymes, Test result interpretation.
In therapeutic drug monitoring, what is the therapeutic range?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Therapeutic Drug Monitoring, What do the results mean? Outline: Chemistry, Special Chemistry: Therapeutic Drug Monitoring.
On a 75 gram oral glucose tolerance test in a non-pregnant adult, which 2-hour glucose is diagnostic of diabetes?MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia (National Library of Medicine), Glucose tolerance test - non-pregnant, Normal Results. Outline: Chemistry, General Chemistry: Carbohydrates, Tolerance testing.
On a CK isoenzymes test, a high CK-MB most likely comes from damage to which tissue?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Creatine Kinase, What do the results mean? Outline: Chemistry, Proteins and Enzymes: Enzymes, CK.
On an LDH isoenzymes test, LDH-5 higher than LDH-4 may be a sign of damage to which organ?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH) Isoenzymes Test, What do the results mean? Outline: Chemistry, Proteins and Enzymes: Enzymes, LD.
On serum protein electrophoresis, a high gamma fraction is listed with which conditions?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Protein Electrophoresis by Immunofixation Blood Test, What do the results mean? Outline: Chemistry, Proteins and Enzymes: Proteins, Test result interpretation.
What does MedlinePlus give as the most common cause of a low anion gap?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Anion Gap Blood Test, What do the results mean? Outline: Chemistry, Acid-Base, Blood Gases, and Electrolytes: Calculations (osmolality, anion gap).
Which action just before or during the blood draw can falsely raise a potassium result?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Potassium Blood Test, Is there anything else I need to know about a potassium blood test? Outline: Chemistry, Acid-Base, Blood Gases, and Electrolytes: Electrolytes, special precautions.
Which condition causes low cortisol levels because the adrenal glands cannot make enough?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Cortisol Test, What is it used for? Outline: Chemistry, Special Chemistry: Endocrinology, Steroid hormones.
Which disease does MedlinePlus name as the most common cause of hypothyroidism?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), TSH (Thyroid-stimulating hormone) Test, What do the results mean? Outline: Chemistry, Special Chemistry: Endocrinology, Thyroid hormones.
Which enzyme test does MedlinePlus call more accurate than amylase for diagnosing pancreatitis?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Amylase Test, Is there anything else I need to know about an amylase test? Outline: Chemistry, Proteins and Enzymes: Enzymes, Lipase; Amylase.
Which range does MedlinePlus print as the normal pH of arterial blood?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) Test, What do the results mean? Outline: Chemistry, Acid-Base, Blood Gases, and Electrolytes: Acid-Base Determinations.
Which samples does a creatinine clearance test need?MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia (National Library of Medicine), Creatinine clearance test, How the Test is Performed. Outline: Chemistry, Proteins and Enzymes: Test procedures, Clearances.
Which specimen problem can give high LDH isoenzyme results, by MedlinePlus?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH) Isoenzymes Test, What do the results mean? Outline: Chemistry, Proteins and Enzymes: Test procedures, interfering substances.
Hematology 18
A G6PD test was done during an episode of hemolytic anemia. What may the provider want to do, by MedlinePlus?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), G6PD Test, What do the results mean? Outline: Hematology, Laboratory Testing: Other Studies, G-6-PD.
A low ESR, with red cells sinking slower than normal, may be caused by which condition?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR), What do the results mean? Outline: Hematology, Laboratory Testing: Other Studies, ESR.
A PTT is longer than normal. Which inherited disorder is on the MedlinePlus list of causes?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) Test, What do the results mean? Outline: Hematology, Hemostasis: Laboratory Determinations, APTT.
A reticulocyte count is higher than normal. Which condition does that fit?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Reticulocyte Count, What do the results mean? Outline: Hematology, Laboratory Testing: Cell Counts, Reticulocytes.
After reticulocytes are sent from the bone marrow into the blood, how long do they take to mature into red blood cells?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Reticulocyte Count, What is a reticulocyte count? Outline: Hematology, Physiology: Production.
For an automated (nonmanual) coagulation test system, when must two levels of control material be run under 42 CFR 493.1269(b)?42 CFR 493.1269, Standard: Hematology (CLIA), paragraph (b). Outline: Hematology, Hemostasis: Laboratory Determinations.
For manual cell counts on a hemocytometer, what does 42 CFR 493.1269(a) require?42 CFR 493.1269, Standard: Hematology (CLIA), paragraph (a). Outline: Hematology, Laboratory Testing: Cell Counts, Manual.
Haptoglobin is lower than normal in an adult. Which condition does that suggest?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Haptoglobin (HP) Test, What do the results mean? Outline: Hematology, Laboratory Testing: Hemolytic Indicators.
Lower than normal levels of protein C or protein S mean a higher risk of what?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Protein C and Protein S Tests, What do the results mean? Outline: Hematology, Hemostasis: Laboratory Determinations, Hypercoagulability assessment.
Pernicious anemia, in which red blood cells are larger than normal, may be caused by a lack of which vitamin?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), MCV (Mean Corpuscular Volume), What do the results mean? Outline: Hematology, Disease States: Erythrocytes, Anemia, Macrocytic.
The Philadelphia chromosome of chronic myeloid leukemia is made when pieces of which two chromosomes break off and trade places?National Cancer Institute, Chronic Myeloid Leukemia Treatment (PDQ), patient version, General Information About Chronic Myeloid Leukemia. Outline: Hematology, Laboratory Testing: Molecular and Cytogenetic Testing, BCR/ABL1.
The PT/INR is most often used to see how well which medicine is working?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Prothrombin Time Test and INR (PT/INR), What is it used for? Outline: Hematology, Hemostasis: Laboratory Determinations, PT/INR.
Red blood cells smaller than normal, a low MCV, may be a sign of which two conditions?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), MCV (Mean Corpuscular Volume), What do the results mean? Outline: Hematology, Disease States: Erythrocytes, Anemia, Microcytic.
What does the red cell distribution width (RDW) measure?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), RDW (Red Cell Distribution Width), What is a red cell distribution width test? Outline: Hematology, Laboratory Testing: Indices.
What is a lower-than-normal platelet count called?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Platelet Tests, What do the results mean? Outline: Hematology, Disease States: Platelets, Quantitative abnormalities.
What is D-dimer?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), D-Dimer Test, What is a D-dimer test? Outline: Hematology, Hemostasis: Laboratory Determinations, D-dimer.
Which condition does MedlinePlus name as one in which the body uses up too much fibrinogen?MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia (National Library of Medicine), Fibrinogen blood test, What Abnormal Results Mean. Outline: Hematology, Hemostasis: Disease States, DIC.
With lupus anticoagulant, why can the PTT show a slower clotting time than the blood really has in the body?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) Test, What do the results mean? Outline: Hematology, Hemostasis: Disease States, Hypercoagulable states.
Immunology 6
A monospot test is negative but the symptoms of mononucleosis continue. Which test will the provider probably order?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Mononucleosis (Mono) Tests, What do the results mean? Outline: Immunology, Infectious Disease Serology: Viral Pathogens, EBV.
An antinuclear antibody (ANA) is named for the part of the cell it targets. Which part is that?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), ANA (Antinuclear Antibody) Test, What is an ANA (antinuclear antibody) test? Outline: Immunology, Serologic Procedures: ANA.
An HIV screening test is positive and it was not a NAT. What does MedlinePlus say is needed to confirm the diagnosis?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), HIV Screening Test, What do the results mean? Outline: Immunology, Test Results: Confirmatory Testing.
Decreased levels or activity of complement proteins are listed as a sign of which disease?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Complement Blood Test, What do the results mean? Outline: Immunology, Principles of Immunology: Complement.
Rheumatoid factor is a protein made by the immune system that usually attacks which other protein?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Rheumatoid Factor (RF) Test, What is a rheumatoid factor (RF) test? Outline: Immunology, Serologic Procedures: Rheumatoid Factor.
The RPR test for syphilis looks for which antibody?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Syphilis Tests, What are syphilis tests? Outline: Immunology, Serologic Procedures: Nontreponemal Syphilis Testing.
Microbiology 13
A first malaria blood test is negative. What is the usual plan for more samples?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Malaria Tests, What do the results mean? Outline: Microbiology, Analytic Procedures: Parasitology, Specimen sources, blood.
A rapid strep A test is negative but strep throat is still suspected. Which test may be ordered?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Strep A Test, What do the results mean? Outline: Microbiology, Analytic Procedures for Bacteriology: Upper Respiratory, Direct detection.
An acid-fast bacillus (AFB) smear is positive. What is still needed to confirm the diagnosis?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Acid-Fast Bacillus (AFB) Tests, What do the results mean? Outline: Microbiology, Analytic Procedures: Mycobacteriology.
Bacteria from the skin get into a blood culture sample. What kind of result does this contamination cause?MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia (National Library of Medicine), Blood culture, What Abnormal Results Mean. Outline: Microbiology, Analytic Procedures for Bacteriology: Blood, skin flora and clinical significance.
Before patient susceptibility results are reported, what must be true of the control organisms' zone sizes or MICs under 42 CFR 493.1261(b)?42 CFR 493.1261, Standard: Bacteriology (CLIA), paragraph (b). Outline: Microbiology, Analytic Procedures for Bacteriology: Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing.
C. diff toxin tests on stool check for which toxins?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), C. diff Testing, What do the results mean? Outline: Microbiology, Analytic Procedures for Bacteriology: Gastrointestinal, Direct detection.
How often must Gram stains be checked for positive and negative reactivity with control organisms under 42 CFR 493.1261?42 CFR 493.1261, Standard: Bacteriology (CLIA), paragraph (a)(2). Outline: Microbiology, Preanalytic Procedures: Stains, Gram.
How often must reagents used to identify mycobacteria be checked with an acid-fast organism that reacts positive and one that reacts negative?42 CFR 493.1262, Standard: Mycobacteriology (CLIA), paragraph (a). Outline: Microbiology, Analytic Procedures for Mycobacteriology: Acid-fast reaction.
On a Gram stain, what color are Gram-positive bacteria?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Gram Stain, What do the results mean? Outline: Microbiology, Preanalytic Procedures: Stains, Gram.
On an antibiotic sensitivity report, what does "intermediate" mean?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Antibiotic Sensitivity Test, What do the results mean? Outline: Microbiology, Analytic Procedures for Bacteriology: Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing.
What are round bacteria called on a Gram stain report?MedlinePlus Medical Test (National Library of Medicine), Gram Stain, What do the results mean? Outline: Microbiology, Preanalytic Procedures: Stains, Gram.
What does potassium hydroxide (KOH) do in a preparation of skin scrapings?MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia (National Library of Medicine), Skin lesion KOH exam, How the Test is Performed. Outline: Microbiology, Preanalytic Procedures: Stains, KOH.
Which tool must a parasitology laboratory calibrate and use when the size of ova and parasites is a critical parameter?42 CFR 493.1264, Standard: Parasitology (CLIA), paragraph (b). Outline: Microbiology, Analytic Procedures: Parasitology, Microscopic identification.
Laboratory operations 7
For a quantitative procedure, what does 42 CFR 493.1256(d)(3) require at least once each day that patient specimens are tested?42 CFR 493.1256, Standard: Control procedures (CLIA), paragraph (d)(3). Outline: Laboratory Operations, Quality Assessment/Troubleshooting: Quality Control.
How must a Category B infectious substance be packaged for transport under 49 CFR 173.199?49 CFR 173.199, Category B infectious substances (PHMSA), paragraph (a)(1). Outline: Laboratory Operations, Safety: Packaging and transportation of specimens and microorganisms.
How often is the performance of a person who does high complexity testing evaluated during the first year of testing patient specimens?42 CFR 493.1451, Standard: Technical supervisor responsibilities (CLIA), paragraph (b)(9). Outline: Laboratory Operations, Quality Assessment/Troubleshooting: Regulation, competency assessment.
On a safety data sheet laid out under 29 CFR 1910.1200(g)(2), which section holds the first-aid measures?29 CFR 1910.1200, Hazard communication (OSHA), paragraph (g)(2). Outline: Laboratory Operations, Safety: Safety data sheets (SDS) for chemicals and reagents.
One part of serum is mixed with four parts of diluent, a 1 to 5 dilution. The diluted sample reads 42 mg/dL of glucose. What is the glucose of the undiluted serum?Own question; the answer is arithmetic on the numbers in the question. Outline: Laboratory Operations, Laboratory Mathematics: Concentration, Volume, and Dilutions.
What does 42 CFR 493.801(b) say about proficiency testing samples for an analysis the laboratory is certified to perform itself?42 CFR 493.801, Condition: Enrollment and testing of samples (CLIA), paragraph (b). Outline: Laboratory Operations, Quality Assessment/Troubleshooting: Regulation, proficiency testing.
Within how many working days of initial assignment must hepatitis B vaccination be made available to an employee with occupational exposure?OSHA, 29 CFR 1910.1030, Bloodborne pathogens, paragraph (f)(2)(i). Outline: Laboratory Operations, Safety: Prevention of infection with bloodborne pathogens.
How this list was compiled: Our own questions, written to the Medical Laboratory Technician, MLT(ASCP) and MLT(ASCPi), Examination Content Guideline of the American Society for Clinical Pathology Board of Certification, revised June 9, 2026 (https://ascpcontentwebsite.blob.core.windows.net/boccontent/docs/default-source/explore-credentials/content-guidelines/ascp_ascpi_mlt_content_guidelineeff0e652-2dbc-4460-925c-cf7cbf37f88b.pdf, linked as "Content Guideline" from https://www.ascp.org/boc/explore-credentials/view-all-credentials/MLT, read 2026-10-07). Its content areas and their shares of the 100-question examination: Blood Banking 15 to 20%, Urinalysis and Other Body Fluids 5 to 10%, Chemistry 20 to 25%, Hematology 20 to 25%, Immunology 5 to 10%, Microbiology 15 to 20%, Laboratory Operations 5 to 10%. The bank holds 14, 6, 18, 18, 6, 13, 7 questions in that order. Every fact was read on 2026-10-07 in the public source the question names: the Code of Federal Regulations on ecfr.gov (21 CFR parts 606, 610, 630 and 640 on blood; 42 CFR part 493, the CLIA laboratory rules; 29 CFR 1910.1030 and 1910.1200; 49 CFR 173.199), MedlinePlus (National Library of Medicine) and the National Cancer Institute. Licence: Questions, choices and explanations are original work of this site.
How it works
This free ASCP practice test has 82 original questions for the MLT(ASCP) exam, weighted like its content guideline. It is unofficial and not affiliated with, endorsed by or sponsored by the American Society for Clinical Pathology (ASCP) Board of Certification.
Read the full guide
What the exam covers
The MLT content guideline, revised June 9, 2026 and read October 7, 2026, weights blood banking 15 to 20%, urinalysis and body fluids 5 to 10%, chemistry 20 to 25%, hematology 20 to 25%, immunology 5 to 10%, microbiology 15 to 20% and laboratory operations 5 to 10%. This bank holds 14, 6, 18, 18, 6, 13 and 7.
Timing
Exam mode asks 80 questions in 2 hours, which is the pace of the real exam.
Where the answers come from
Each question cites a public page: federal rules on ecfr.gov (21 CFR 606 to 640 on blood, 42 CFR 493 on laboratories, 49 CFR 173.199 on shipping), OSHA, MedlinePlus or the National Cancer Institute.
The guideline lists calculations to know, such as red cell indices, corrected white cell counts and creatinine clearance, and prints its own exam reference ranges.
Questions and answers
Is this a free ASCP practice test?
Yes. There is no charge and no sign-up, and it runs online in the browser.
Is this an MLT ASCP practice test or an MLS one?
It follows the MLT guideline. The MLS exam has the same seven areas, with blood banking, chemistry, hematology and microbiology at 17 to 22% each. Phlebotomy and histology exams follow other guidelines and are not covered here.
How many questions are on the ASCP exam?
100 on the MLT and MLS exams, in 2 hours 30 minutes. The MLT exam taken for California licensure only has 80 in 2 hours, by the Board of Certification's About the Examination page, read October 7, 2026.
What score do you need to pass the ASCP exam?
The Board of Certification reports a scaled score from 100 to 999, and 400 is the minimum passing score.
Is this the official ASCP practice test?
No. It is unofficial. The Board of Certification publishes its own content guidelines and reading lists, and ASCP sells its own study guides. This is a separate bank, and no question in it was taken from an ASCP exam or guide.